Hello all, christians and muslims both believe in the virgin
birth of Jesus, isnt it possible that mary was having an affair and she
accidentally got pregnant?, but since she knew the people that lived
back then were a superstitious gullible lot, she came up with the lie
that it was god that made her pregnant and the fools believed her,

i personally think she was a really smart woman because up till today her lie is still believed by christians and muslims

if she was alive today she will be a very good politician,

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My two cents: I hate the word "Whore", as well as slut, at least in this context. It makes me think of some white frat boys trying to make themselves feel better by bullying some woman they may or may not have gotten "their way with".

Plus, its reminiscent of the group stoning someone. I think the words are worse than "fuck" or "shit" because those generally imply mutual consent, but if those words are meant to be kept out of the post titles, this one certainly should be.
She might have been raped. We have no way of knowing. There is no reason to pass judgment on her based on what little is presented in the bible. It is pointless to discuss the moral character of this particular example of the common myth of virgin birth. It is a ridiculous primitive story. I think it was common in that time that when a woman became pregnant and couldn't identify a father, it was believed to be an "act of god." They were an ignorant people. Who cares.
Didn't the original untranslated word for Mary mean "young" and not "virgin"?
Didn't we translate it to mean virgin later?
Maybe, but then is that true of all the other gods/prophets born to virgin mothers in that era, fathered by gods? Seems likely that Jesus was just another virgin birth like the others, but then maybe not. Still, if you are the "son of god" then it would be a magic pregnancy, whether she had sex before or not.

Maybe they just meant to say she was "young." It is another instance of an interesting paradox for religious zealots, as they try to explain and make sense of their miracles, they become mundane and they are left with nothing to worship.
The word you are thinking of is "Almah" from the book of Isaiah. It was mistranslated to "parthenos" (virgin) in the Greek Septuagint of Hebrew scripture. It actually means "young woman." The authors of the NT used the Greek Septuagint as reference for for the alleged fulfillment of prophecy, since they were likely Greek-speaking Hellenist Jews themselves.
According to an Arabic scholar. The original word is one that doesn't translate very well but is close to Miss or Mrs.
Mary, mother of Jesus, is foremost a literary concept. Although both were fairly common names at the time, the names take on symbolic literary provenance. Mary and Marie (Maria) are transliterations of the Hebrew Mir-i-am (the sister of Moses). Etymologically, the name means strong (or strengthened) sea. In the French language, there is a homynom; mere=mother, mer=sea. The "sea" references the ubiquitous amniotic fluid of female pregnancy. So "Mary" as a literary construct is a female archetype, to the point of almost being goddess-like.

In Hellenist pagan mythology of the time, there was significance of the goddess consort such as Ishtar and Isis-Meri. Frequently in many traditions, she could be mother, sister, wife, virgin, and concubine, all rolled into one. The NT narrative being derivative of monotheist Judaism could not be so supernaturally explicit. But it is no coincidence that Christ's consort-disciple was also a "Mary" (Magdalene). "Mary" is also derivative of the Judaic "Wisdom" or Sophia from Proverbs and the inter-Testamental Book of the Wisdom of Solomon.
I would assume in that time period, sexual education wasn't very comprehensive for young women. She may have done sexual things without actual penetration believing that she still has her virginity as long as the hymen is intact. It is possible to get pregnant that way, although not as common. So not so much a whore, as ignorant.
Considering that Jesus' existence as a historical figure is sketchy at best, and if such a person(s) did exist we can't be sure of any of the actual details as they've all been clothed in mythology...

I do wonder in that day and age if a woman (or more likely her husband/father/brother) could get away with claiming the pregnancy to be miraculous.

Certainly they were even more likely to believe in superstition and miracles than some of today's religious nutcases. But would the claim have worked or simply gotten her ousted for blasphemy?

I tend to think the later. The history of the Church at least has shown that more often than not, a person claiming 'miracle' or being a vessel of the supernatural gets labeled a witch/devil/whatever more often than the miracle is embraced.

I think it would depend on the woman's (or more likely her husband's/father's/brother's) status in the community and with the local religious leaders. If you're in favor and they have something to gain from it, then praise be, it's a miracle! Otherwise, you're just a whore trying to cover up your whoring.**

(**I use 'whore' in historical context. Pregnancy out of wedlock generally = whore).
If I remember correctly, so don't take this as fact. There were two historical events occurring at the time of the virgin birth, a tax collection, a census. Joseph and Mary were from different cities, I think, and they would have have to had to pay taxes as a married couple plus for Buddy Jesus, plus then register as a married couple with Buddy. Women didn't pay taxes since they were property. Mary would have cost Joseph extra in taxes for her and Buddy. But, digging deeper I find that Mathew 1:24 hints that Joseph and Mary consummated their marriage before the conception of Buddy Jesus. Much of the bible we know of today is mixed with pagan myths and stories passed down from ancient religions before christianity. Most importantly one must remember that the bible has been edited and translated countless times to the most likely outcome that the original accounts of the beginnings of the christian cult has been lost. The gospels of Thomas do clean up some of the stories and shed light upon the Council of Nicaea's changes, but one must admit most of what we know about those times has been manufactured 300-400 years later.
There was no census. In fact the Roman Empire never conducted a census of the type described in the gospels.
Augustus is known to have taken a census of Roman citizens at least three times, in 28 BCE, 8 BCE, and 14 CE. There is also evidence that censuses were taken at regular intervals during his reign in the provinces of Egypt and Sicily, important because of their wealthy estates and supply of grain. In the provinces, the main goals of a census of non-citizens were taxation and military service. The earliest such provincial census was taken in Gaul in 27 BCE; during the reign of Augustus, the imposition of the census provoked disturbances and resistance.

"When I was consul the fifth time (29 B.C.E.), I increased the number of patricians by order of the people and senate. I read the roll of the senate three times, and in my sixth consulate (28 B.C.E.) I made a census of the people with Marcus Agrippa as my colleague. I conducted a lustrum, after a forty-one year gap, in which lustrum were counted 4,063,000 heads of Roman citizens. Then again, with consular imperium I conducted a lustrum alone when Gaius Censorinus and Gaius Asinius were consuls (8 B.C.E.), in which lustrum were counted 4,233,000 heads of Roman citizens. And the third time, with consular imperium, I conducted a lustrum with my son Tiberius Caesar as colleague, when Sextus Pompeius and Sextus Appuleius were consuls (14 A.C.E.), in which lustrum were cunted 4,937,000 of the heads of Roman citizens. By new laws passed with my sponsorship, I restored many traditions of the ancestors, which were falling into disuse in our age, and myself I handed on precedents of many things to be imitated in later generations."Gaius Julius Caesar Augustus



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