I don't really have time to research this, but it's a fascinating topic. I had two literature professors at University who weighed in on the debate about whether Shakespeare was actually the author of the plays.
One is skeptical about Shakespeare's authorship.
The other took great pains to explain to us why, given the kind of education boys of Shakespeare's generation would have had, there was no reason why he could not have written the plays.
I also recall seeing a documentary on the English Language on television and hearing the argument that the iambic pentameter of Shakespeare's plays scans better if they're recited with a Warwickshire accent.
Does anyone have any views or insights on whether Shakespeare actually authored the plays?